I do not want this to turn into an argument between calvinists and armenians.
But I continue to be perplexed; and risk opening the proverbial can of worms.
Some of you will know to whom I refer. I ask you NOT to mention his name on this public forum.
Decades ago I served with a young man who was a phenomenal preacher of the Word. Hundreds came to Christ under his ministry...to include a staff member with whom I now serve. He officiated the wedding of another staff member.
Then he was caught in homosexual sin.
Then he showed up pastoring a small church. A friend stumbled into this situation, and learned that the "pastor" had told the church that he was out of the ministry for a while because of his wife's death. He left.
Later he showed up at a Metropolitan Community "Church" in Kansas City and later "married" his long time partner.
Now he pastors an, according to their website, "open and affirming" "church" near Kansas City.
Question: How does (or does) First John 2.19 apply? "They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they
would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that
they all are not of us."
Was he ever a Christian? Or did God simply bless the message rather than the messenger? If your theology allows, did he "lose" his salvation? Can he be a genuine Christian and live in ongoing sin as a lifestyle? Even if you believe "once saved always saved," is it possible for a genuine Christian to give up his salvation? ("No man can pluck them out of My hand" says Jesus, but can you jump?)
This individual serves as an example of all too many I've known over the years. Then, for those who remember, we have Ray Boltz and Jennifer Knapp.
As homosexual practice (as opposed to temptation) continued to become a huge focal point in the professing church, maybe I'm not the only one who is trying to biblically, and thus logically, work through this stuff?
What thinkest thou?